Question
Solve the following differential equations
(i) .
(ii) .
b) Find the equation of the integral surface of the differential equation
which passes through the line .
Answer :
Word Count : 230
Let (p=\frac{\partial z}{\partial x},\ q=\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}). (i) Given (x^{2}p+y^{2}q=(x+y)z). This is a Lagrange type equation. The auxiliary system is [ \frac{dx}{x^{2}}=\frac{dy}{y^{2}}=\frac{dz}{(x+y)z}. ] From (\frac{dx}{x^{2}}=\frac{dy}{y^{2}}), [ \frac{dx}{x^{2}}-\frac{dy}{y^{2}}=0 \implies -\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}=C_{1}. ] Using (\frac{dx}{x^{2}}=\frac{dz}{(x+y)z}), [ \frac{dz}{z}=\frac{x+y}{x^{2}},dx=\left(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{y}{x^{2}}\right)dx. ] From the first ________ ____ _____ _______ __________ _____ ____.
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Let (p=\frac{\partial z}{\partial x},\ q=\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}). (i) Given (x^{2}p+y^{2}q=(x+y)z). This is a Lagrange type equation. The auxiliary system is [ \frac{dx}{x^{2}}=\frac{dy}{y^{2}}=\frac{dz}{(x+y)z}. ] From (\frac{dx}{x^{2}}=\frac{dy}{y^{2}}), [ \frac{dx}{x^{2}}-\frac{dy}{y^{2}}=0 \implies -\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}=C_{1}. ] Using (\frac{dx}{x^{2}}=\frac{dz}{(x+y)z}), [ \frac{dz}{z}=\frac{x+y}{x^{2}},dx=\left(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{y}{x^{2}}\right)dx. ] From the first ________ ____ _____ _______ __________ _____ ____.
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