Question

If the power series .\sum_{n=0}^{\infty }a_{n}x^{n} converges uniformly in \left ]\alpha ,\beta \right [, then so does \sum_{n=0}^{\infty }a_{n}(-x)^{n}. True or false? Justify.

04 Mar 2024
Answer :
Word Count : 165
The given statement is true. Here's the justification: Consider the power series \[ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_n x^n \] which converges uniformly on the interval \( (\alpha, \beta) \). Uniform convergence means that for any given \(\epsilon > 0\), there exists an \(N\) _________ ____ _____ _______ ________ _______ _______ _____ ________ ____ ___ ______.
_____ _____ _____ ________ __________ ________ _________.
______ ____ ________ ___ ________ __________ _____ _________.
___ ______ ___ ____ ____ ________ ________.
___ _________ __________ __________ __________ ____ ____ _________ ______ __________.
__________ _______ _____ ___ _____ _____ ______ ________.
___ _____ _______ ______ _______ _________.
_______ __________ _______ ____ _______ ________ ___ ______.
____ ___ ______ _____ __________ ______.
______ ___ ____ ________ ____ _________ _______.
____ _____ _______ __________ __________ ___ ___ ___ ________ ____ ______.
_______ _____ _____ _______ _____ ________ __________ ____ ________.
_________ _______ _________ _______ ________.
_________ _______ ___ ______ ___.
____ _________ _____ _____ ___ _______.
____ ______ __________ ____ ______.
_________ ___ ___ _________.
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